[Taxacom] Question about a malacological rhetorical question

[Stephen Thorpe]

There is a *big* difference between a species being 'deliminated [delimited] *solely* by evidence of reproductive barriers', and such barriers being used to confirm delimitation based on morphology and/or genetics. In fact, surely the former doesn't actually make sense? How could there be reproductive barriers if there was complete identity in morphology and/or genetics? Even if there were supposed behavioural differences (e.g. diural vs. nocturnal), this could just be interpreted as different behaviours of one species, with the diurnal ones never meeting up to reproduce with the nocturnal ones. Otherwise, you could claim that day shift workers and night shift workers are different species!!

Stephen

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On Fri, 23/1/15, Adam.N.Jenkins13 at gmail.com <adam.n.jenkins13 at gmail.com> wrote:

 Subject: [Taxacom] Question about a malacological rhetorical question
 To: taxacom at mailman.nhm.ku.edu
 Received: Friday, 23 January, 2015, 11:30 AM
 
 Hello all,
 
 One for all the marine malacologists out there.
 
 In /Taxonomic Problems of the Genus Olivia/ by Bernard
 Tursch the author 
 asks a rhetorical question regarding delimination of species
 in marine 
 molluscs "has any species of marine mollusc ever been
 defined by direct 
 proof of reproductive barriers?" In the context of the paper
 the author  
 is emphasisng the use of morphospecies as an indirect
 approach to the 
 biological species concept. It got me wondering in the 7
 years since the 
 publication of this paper has there been any species of
 marine mollusc 
 deliminated solely by evidence of reproductive barriers? Any
 further 
 reading would be greatly appreciated.
 
 Thank you,
 
 Adam Jenkins
 
 
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